A. While it is understood (and thus not debated) that Christ is frequently referenced indirectly as the Word of God (as the Bible itself is referred to as the Word of God), IF what is stated above by
@Artful Revealer is true, then he should be able to provide us with at least one verse that specifically states Jesus is the Word.
B. While it is understood (and thus not debated) that the Word
OF God
IS His Message of Truth in
ALL of its forms, even John 1:1 states that in the Beginning
WAS the Word, and the Word was
WITH God, and that the Word
WAS God.
The correct and only logical conclusion is that the word "word" means exactly what it says, i.e. that it is God's Message of Truth in
ALL of its forms, which has always been with God,
even before the beginning of time, before God created/made Prince Michael/Christ. A word is a means of conveying a message, and God's Message and doctrine is
TRUTH.
John 1
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.
15 John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.
Who or what dwelt among us as
'the Word made flesh'? And whom is John speaking of? Everyone knows the answer is Jesus.
It has to be Jesus, cause you and I both concur that Christ is spirit (ie. not flesh), therefore it was Christ (
the only begotten of the Father) who was made flesh (received a body). That flesh is the
Man Jesus, who became the Lord Jesus Christ. Christ and the man Jesus became one, which is something you yourself espouse with your human (Jesus) + spirit-being (Christ) theory.
And even if the Word is synonymous for God's Truth, did Jesus Christ not say:
John 14
6 Jesus told him, "I am the way, the truth, and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me."
?
So even according to your own reasoning that the Word is Truth, you have to conclude that Jesus is God, for Jesus is the Truth, which is the Word, which is God.
It is completely and totally illogical to redefine the word "word", in a vain attempt to deceive others and to call Christ a liar. Christ NEVER claimed to be God, and HUNDREDS of Biblical verses bear that truth to this world.
Yet it is YOU who redefines the word 'WORD' through a lense that doesn't take into account the meaning of the original, which was
Logos (Koine Gr.).
Logos is not synonymous with Word. The word Logos encompasses a much broader meaning including foundation, principle, logic, reason, speech, ... It's basically the order of the universe according to God's mind. If you're going to interpret this concept with the modern-day English "word", then it's no surprise at all that you fail to interpret the meaning correctly, or infer the proper conclusions.
1 Corinthians 8:6-7
8:6 But to us [there is only] ONE God, the Father, of Whom [are] all things, and we of Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him.
8:7 Howbeit [there is] not in every man that knowledge: for some with conscience of the idol unto this hour eat [it] as a thing offered unto an idol; and their conscience being weak is defiled.
More scripture to confirm my point. 1 Corinthians 8 says one God, the Father (the Father is added here to distinguish hypostases) and one Lord Jesus Christ.
First, is Lord (capital L) not a reference to God? If so, why would Jesus be called Lord (capital L) if He isn't God? Are there two Lords, and thus two Gods? I'm afraid that if you don't reconcile the fact that both the Father and the Son are God, that you're the one who is saying the scriptures contain polytheism.
Secondly, what is the significance of distinguishing between
'from whom are all things' and
'through whom are all things'? Would you not say that both apply to God? If the second does not apply to God, you are saying God is NOT through whom all things are. Is that something you would believe?
And what does it say in John 1:3 about he
through whom all things are made?
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
2 He was with God in the beginning.
3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.
Scripture clearly says that
all things are made through the Lord Jesus Christ (1 Cor 8:6) and the Word (John 1:3) who is God (John 1:1).
Prime example of scripture from which trinitarian doctrines are inferred. And it's only one verse that YOU brought to the table to prove your own claim.
1 Timothy 2:3-5
2:3 For this [is] good and acceptable in the sight of God our Saviour;
2:4 Who will have all men to be saved, and to come unto the Knowledge of The Truth.
2:5 For [there is] ONE God, AND One mediator BETWEEN God and men, the Man Jesus Christ;
Again, scripture goes out of its way to state 'the
MAN Jesus Christ'. That's the part that you should be highlighting.
It does not say 'one God and one Christ' like you think it does. It specifically refers to Jesus, the MAN, as to distinguish from the Lord Jesus Christ who is the MAN Jesus (the flesh / the human) + Christ (the Word / Son of God) in one hypostatic union.